Medical Science Nursing Students Hematology Series-2: Lymph Nodes & Spleen MCQ
This part of the MCQ covers questions from Lymph Nodes & Spleen
Filtering substances out of the lymphatic fluid, lymph nodes contain lymphocytes that assist the body in fighting disease and infection. The body is covered with hundreds of lymph nodes.
Blood infections are the subject of hematology. Hematology incorporates the investigation of platelets and their capabilities, also as the infections that can influence these cells and organs. The area of hematology gives therapy to blood issues and malignancies, including hemophilia, blood clumps, leukemia, lymphoma, myeloma, and sickle-cell anemia.
In internal medicine, hematology deals with the physiology, pathology, etiology, treatment, prediction, and counteraction of blood-related diseases. Hematologists have some expertise in the lymphatic and bone marrow frameworks, and they can distinguish blood count or platelet irregularities.
The lymph hubs, spleen, thymus, and lymphoid tissue are organs that are taken care of by platelets, and hematologists treat them. Hematologists focus on the lymphatic and bone marrow frameworks, and afterward, they can recognize blood count or platelet inconsistencies. A hematologist centers around lymph hubs, spleens, thymuses, and lymphoid tissue. Pallor, hemoglobinopathy, hematologic malignancies, and coagulopathy are four significant areas of concentrate inside hematology.
In hemoglobinopathy, anomalies in globin chains are considered. Notwithstanding sickle cell iron deficiency and thalassemia, there are different hemoglobinopathies. A hematologic malignancy can involve tumors in the bone marrow, blood, or lymph nodes. There are three kinds of hematologic malignancies: leukemia, lymphoma, and myeloma. Blood vessel thromboembolism, profound vein apoplexy, and neutropenia are also treated by hematologists
What main blood test is done in hematology?
The complete blood count, or CBC, is one of the most common hematology tests. The test is commonly performed during routine exams and can detect anemia, clotting problems, blood cancers, immune system disorders, and infections.
What Is a Hematologist?
When Do You Need a Hematologist?
An hematologist is an internal medicine physician or a pediatrician who is specially trained in disorders of the blood, bone marrow, and lymphatic system. Their training is in pathology, a branch of medicine that examines tissues and blood under microscopes.
A typical complete blood count result for an adult is as follows:
Red blood cell count
Male: 4.35-5.65 trillion cells/L
(4.35-5.65 million cells/mcL)
Female: 3.92-5.13 trillion cells/L
(3.92-5.13 million cells/mcL)
Hemoglobin
Male: 13.2-16.6 grams/dL
(132-166 grams/L)
Female: 11.6-15 grams/dL
(116-150 grams/L)
Hematocrit
Male: 38.3-48.6 percent
Female: 35.5-44.9 percent
White blood cell count
3.4-9.6 billion cells/L
(3,400 to 9,600 cells/mcL)
Platelet count
Male: 135-317 billion/L
(135,000 to 317,000/mcL)
Female: 157-371 billion/L
(157,000 to 371,000/mcL)
Presenting these questions to Nursing Students, Medical and Allied Health Sciences Students to augment Knowledge and Awareness
1.
Generalized adenopathy means involvement of how many noncontiguous lymph node
areas?
A. One or more
B.
Two or more
C. Three or more
D.
Four or more
2. Which of the following is a cause of generalized lymphadenopathy?
A.
AIDS
B.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
C.
Mixed connective tissue disease
D. All of the above
3. Which of the following is characteristic of enlarged lymph nodes in metastatic
cancer ?
A.
Hard
B.
Nonmovable
C.
Nontender
D. All of the above
4. Which parameter is used in ultrasonography of cervical nodes for distinguishing
benign from malignant nodes ?
A. Area
B.
Volume
C. Ratio of long to short axis (L / S
ratio)
D.
Sonodensity
5. Winterbottom’s sign is a classic finding of ?
A.
Giardiasis
B.
Toxoplasmosis
C. Human African Trypanosomiasis
D.
Balantidiasis
6. In Winterbottom’s sign, location of lymph node enlargement is ?
A.
Axilla
B. Posterior cervical triangle
C.
Submental
D.
Inguinal
7. Romana’s sign is a feature of ?
A. Acute Chagas’ disease
B.
Cutaneous leishmaniasis
C.
Visceral leishmaniasis
D.
Babesiosis
8. Enlarged, grayish yellow or orange tonsils are pathognomonic of ?
A.
Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia
B.
Polycythemia vera
C.
Wolman disease
D. Tangier disease
9. Which
of the following about lymphadenopathy is false ?
A.
Most frequent site of regional lymphadenopathy is neck
B.
Enlargement of supraclavicular and scalene nodes is always abnormal
C. Virchow’s node is enlarged right
supraclavicular node
D.
Sarcoidosis can cause supraclavicular adenopathy
10. Metastases to supraclavicular nodes occur from ?
A.
Lung
B.
Breast
C.
Testis
D. Any of the above
11. Which of the following is false about spleen ?
A.
Decreases in size with age
B.
Lies entirely within rib cage
C.
Maximum cephalocaudad diameter is 13 cm by USG
D. Maximum width of 14 cm by
radionuclide scan
12. Katayama fever is characterized by all except ?
A.
Fever
B.
Generalized lymphadenopathy
C. Lymphocytosis
D.
Hepatosplenomegaly
13. Middleton maneuver is used for splenic ?
A.
Inspection
B. Palpation
C.
Percussion
D.
Auscultation
14. Which of the following is false in spleen examination ?
A.
Auscultation may reveal venous hum or friction rub
B.
Bimanual palpation in right lateral decubitus position adds nothing to supine
examination
C.
Reproducibility among examiners is better for palpation than percussion
D. None of the above
15. Nixon, Castell, or Barkun methods are used for splenic ?
A.
Inspection
B.
Palpation
C. Percussion
D.
Auscultation
16. Painful preauricular lymphadenopathy is a feature of ?
A.
Cat-scratch disease
B. Tularemia
C.
Tuberculosis
D.
Syphilis
17. Accessory spleens are seen in what percentage of persons ?
A.
5 %
B.
10 %
C.
15 %
D. 20 %
18. Which of the following about structure of spleen is false ?
A.
White pulp is lymphoid in nature
B.
To return to circulation, RBCs traverse sinusoidal pores
C.
Pulp cords are dead ends
D. None of the above
19. Which of the following is a ‘Red cell inclusion body’ ?
A.
RBC parasites
B.
Howell-Jolly bodies
C.
Heinz bodies
D. All of the above
20. Which of the following is false about spleen ?
A.
Normal spleen contains ~one-third of total body platelets
B.
Normal spleen contains significant no. of marginated neutrophils
C.
Spleen is in the portal circulation
D. None of the above
21. Weight of a normal spleen is ?
A.
< 150 grams
B. < 250 grams
C.
< 350 grams
D.
< 450 grams
22. In Nixon’s method, splenic enlargement is indicated when upper border of
dullness above costal margin is ?
A.
> 4 cm
B. > 8 cm
C.
> 12 cm
D.
> 16 cm
23. Which of the following is a cause of supraclavicular adenopathy ?
A.
Tuberculosis
B.
Sarcoidosis
C.
Toxoplasmosis
D. All of the above
24. Benign lymphadenopathy is assumed when lymph node area is ?
A.
< 0.25 cm2
B.
< 0.50 cm2
C.
< 0.75 cm2
D. < 1.00 cm2
25. Tenderness of lymph node is due to ?
A.
Inflammation of capsule
B.
Rupture of capsule
C. Stretching of capsule
D.
All of the above
26. Which of the following is not a characteristic of enlarged lymph nodes in
lymphoma ?
A.
Discrete
B. Asymmetric
C.
Rubbery
D.
Nontender
27. Occipital lymphadenopathy accompanies which of the following ?
A. Scalp infection
B.
Ear infection
C.
Conjunctival infections
D.
Tooth infection
28. Preauricular lymphadenopathy accompanies which of the following ?
A.
Scalp infection
B.
Ear infection
C. Conjunctival infections
D.
Tooth infection
29. Most frequent site of regional lymphadenopathy is ?
A.
Axilla
B. Neck
C.
Groin
D.
Abdominal
30. Term “splenosis” best relates to ?
A.
Regression of systemic disease after splenectomy
B.
Ultrafiltration of abnormal RBCs
C.
Iatrogenic splenic rupture
D. Ectopic spleen tissue
31. Which of the following is a contraindication for splenectomy ?
A.
Iatrogenic splenic rupture
B.
Thrombocytopenia
C. Presence of bone marrow failure
D.
Hairy cell leukemia
32. Chronic manifestations of splenectomy include ?
A.
Howell-Jolly bodies
B.
Heinz bodies
C.
Basophilic stippling
D. All of the above
33. Frequency of a serious infection following splenectomy is highest within ?
A.
First 6 months
B.
First 1 year
C. First 3 years
D.
First 5 years
34. Which of the following is false in postsplenectomy period ?
A.
Increased susceptibility to capsulated bacterial infections
B.
No increased risk of viral infection
C.
Increased susceptibility to babesiosis
D. None of the above
35. In elective splenectomy, pneumococcal vaccine should be administered how many
weeks before surgery ?
A.
1 weeks
B. 2 weeks
C.
3 weeks
D.
4 weeks
36. In Castell’s method, percussion in the lowest intercostal space is done in ?
A.
Midclavicular line
B. Anterior axillary line
C.
Midaxillary line
D.
Posterior axillary line
37. Massive splenomegaly is defined as spleen extending ?
A.
> 2 cm below left costal margin
B.
> 4 cm below left costal margin
C.
> 6 cm below left costal margin
D. > 8 cm below left costal margin
38. Massive splenomegaly is defined as spleen that weighs ?
A.
> 250 gram
B.
> 500 gram
C.
> 750 gram
D. > 1000 gram
39. Causes of massive splenomegaly include ?
A.
Chronic myelogenous leukemia
B.
Lymphomas
C.
Hairy cell leukemia
D. All of the above
40. Causes of massive splenomegaly include ?
A.
Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia
B.
Polycythemia vera
C.
Gaucher’s disease
D. All of the above
41. Causes of Massive splenomegaly include ?
A.
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
B.
Sarcoidosis
C.
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
D. All of the above
42. ‘Abscopal effect’ refers to ?
A.
Ultrafiltration of abnormal RBCs
B. Regression of systemic disease
after splenectomy
C.
Increased tendancy of enlarged splenic rupture
D.
Peritoneal seeding of splenic fragments
43. Which of the following cytokines interleukins stimulate platelet production in
acute inflammation ?
A.
IL-3
B.
IL-6
C.
IL-11
D. All of the above
44. Mechanisms of thrombocytopenia include ?
A.
Decreased bone marrow production
B.
Increased splenic sequestration
C.
Accelerated destruction
D. All of the above
45. TAR syndrome means ?
A.
Thrombocytopenia with absent reticulocytes
B.
Thrombocytopenia with absent renin
C. Thrombocytopenia with absent radii
D.
Thrombocytopenia with abnormal vessels
56. Acute ITP is common in ?
A. Children
B.
Adults
C.
Elderly
D.
All of the above
47. Which of the following appear in the red cells of asplenic individuals ?
A.
Macroovalocytes
B.
Basophilic stippling
C. Howell-Jolly bodies
D.
Target cells
48. Rituximab is what type of a monoclonal antibody ?
A.
Anti-CD19
B. Anti-CD20
C.
Anti-CD21
49. Platelet surface receptor GpVI / FcRIIa binds to ?
A.
vWF
B.
Fibrinogen
C. Collagen
D.
All of the above
50. After leaving bone marrow, what proportion of platelets are sequestered in
spleen ?
A. One-third
B.
One-half
C.
Two-thirds
D.
Three-fourths
51. The life span of platelets in circulation is about ?
A.
1 to 3 days
B.
3 to 5 days
C.
5 to 7 days
D. 7 to 10 days
52. During the menstrual cycle, platelet count rise at what time ?
A. Following ovulation
B.
At the onset of menses
C.
After completion of menstrual flow
D.
Before ovulation
53. During the menstrual cycle, platelet count fall at what time ?
A.
Following ovulation
B. At the onset of menses
C.
After completion of menstrual flow
D.
Before ovulation
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