Cyber Security Test Questions Answers Linkedin

Cyber Security Test Questions Answers Linkedin

Cyber Security, Computer security, also known as information technology security, is the practice of safeguarding computers, networks, programs and data from unauthorized access or attacks. Cyber security focuses on the following areas of Application Security, Information Security, Network Security and Disaster recovery

1. According to the shared responsibility model, which cloud computing model places the most responsibility on the cloud service provider (CSP)?

Hybrid Cloud
Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Software as a Service (SaaS)
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

2. Which option removes the risk of multitenancy in cloud computing?

private cloud
PaaS
public cloud
IaaS

3. Your organization recently implemented a unified messaging solution and VoIP phones on every desktop. You are responsible for researching the vulnerabilities of the VoIP system. Which type of attack are VoIP phones most vulnerable to experiencing?

brute force attacks
denial-of-service
malware
buffer overflow

4. Which security control cannot produce an active response to a security event?

cloud access security broker (CASB)
intrusion detection system (IDS)
intrusion prevention system (IPS)
next generation firewall

5. Packet sniffer is also called _.

SIEM
protocol analyzer
UTM
data sink

6. Which option tests code while it is in operation?

code review
dynamic analysis
code analysis
static analysis

7. Which option describes testing that individual software developers can conduct on their own code?

unit testing
gray box testing
integration testing
white box testing

8. In black box penetration testing, what information is provided to the tester about the target environment?

limited details of server and network infrastructure
all information
none
limited details of server infrastructure

9. Which security control can best protect against shadow IT by identifying and preventing use of unsanctioned cloud apps and services?

intrusion prevention system (IPS)
next generation firewall
intrusion detection system (IDS)
cloud access security broker (CASB)

10. Which option describes the best defense against collusion?

monitoring of normal employee system and data access patterns
separation of duties and job rotation
applying system and application updates regularly
fault tolerant infrastructure and data redundancy

11. During a penetration test, you find a file containing hashed passwords for the system you are attempting to breach. Which type of attack is most likely to succeed in accessing the hashed passwords in a reasonable amount of time?

password spray attack
rainbow table attack
pass-the-hash attack
brute force attack

12. Which area is DMZ?

image

13. You configure an encrypted USB drive for a user who needs to deliver a sensitive file at an in-person meeting. What type of encryption is typically used to encrypt the file?

file hash
asymmetric encryption
digital signature
symmetric encryption

14. What is the difference between DRP and BCP

DRP works to keep a business up and running despite a disaster. BCP works to restore the original business capabilities.
BCP works to keep a business up and running despite a disaster. DRP works to restore the original business capabilities.
BCP is part of DRP.
DRP is part of BCP.

15. Which aspect of cybersecurity do Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks affect the most?

non-repudiation
availability
integrity
confidentiality

16. You need to recommend a solution to automatically assess your cloud-hosted VMs against CIS benchmarks to identify deviations from security best practices. What type of solution should you recommend?

Intrusion Detection and Prevention System (IDPS)
Cloud Workload Protection Platforms (CWPP)
Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM)
Cloud Access Security Brokers (CASBs)

17. _ validates the integrity of data files.

Compression
Stenography
Hashing
Symmetric encryption

18. Which is an example of privacy regulation at the state government level in the U.S.?

NIST Privacy Framework
CCPA
GDPR
OSPF

19. what is the term for the policies and technologies implemented to protect, limit, monitor, audit, and govern identities with access to sensitive data and resources?

privileged account management (PAM)
authentication and authorization
identity and access management (IAM)
least privilege

20. You have configured audit settings in your organization's cloud services in the event of a security incident. What type of security control is an audit trail?

corrective control
preventive control
detective control
directive control

21. What is the name for a short-term interruption in electrical power supply?

grayout
brownout
blackout
whiteout

22. Your security team recommends adding a layer of defense against emerging persistent threats and zero-day exploits for all endpoints on your network. The solution should offer protection from external threats for network-connected devices, regardless of operating system. Which solution is best suited to meet this requirement?

Security Information Event Management (SIEM)
Cloud App Security Broker (CASB)
Extended Detection and Response (XDR)
next generation firewall (NGFW)

23. Which is not a threat modeling methodology?

STRIDE
MITRE ATT&CK
TRIKE
TOGAF

24. You organization is conducting a pilot deployment of a new e-commerce application being considered for purchase. You need to recommend a strategy to evaluate the security of the new software. Your organization does not have access to the application's source code.

Which strategy should you choose?

unit testing
white box testing
dynamic application security testing
static application security testing

25. You need to disable the camera on corporate devices to prevent screen capture and recording of sensitive documents, meetings, and conversations. Which solution would be be suited to the task?

Mobile Device Management (MDM)
Data Loss Prevention (DLP)
Intrusion Detection and Prevention System (IDPS)
cloud access security broker (CASB)

26. How many keys would be necessary to accomodate 100 users in an asymmetric cryptography system?

100
300
200
400

27. Two competing online retailers process credit card transactions for customers in countries on every continent. One organization is based in the United States. The other is based in the Netherlands. With which regulation must both countries comply while ensuring the security of these transactions?

Federal Information Security Managment Act (FISMA)
Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS)
General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
International Organization for Standardization and Internation Electronical Commission (ISO/IEC 27018)

28. What provides a common language for describing security incidents in a structures and repeatable manner?

common vulnerabilties and exposures
common vulnerability scoring system
Common event format
common weakness enumeration

29. Which type of application can intercept sensative information such as passwoprds on a network segment?

protocol analyzer
log server
network scanner
firewall

30. An attacker has discovered that they can deduce a sensitive piece of confidential information by analyzing multiple pieces of less sensative public data.

aggregation
SQL injection
cross-origin resouce sharing
inference

31. You have recovered a server that was compromised in a malware attack to its previous state. What is the final step in the incident response process?

Certification
Reporting
Eradication / Remediation
Lessons Learned

32. Sharing account credentials violates the _ aspect of access control.

accounting
authentication
identification
authorization

33. Which type of security assessment requires access to source code?

dynamic analysis
penetration testing
static analysis
black box testing

34. Which encryption type uses a public and private key pair for encrypting and decrypting data?

asymmetric
symmetric
hashing
all of these answers

35. LDAP in directory service stands for ______.

Light Weight Director Access Provider
Light Weight Director Access Protocol
Light Weight Director Access Provider
Light Weight Director Access Protection

36. You have been tasked with recommending a solution to centrally manage mobile devices used throughout your organization. Which technology would best meet this need?

Extended Detection and Responde (XDR)
Intrusion Detection and Prevention System (IDPS)
Mobile Device Management (MDM)
Security Information Event Management (SIEM)

37. Which type of vulnerability cannot be discovered in the course of a typical vulnerability assessment?

file permissions
buffer overflow
zero-day vulnerability
cross-site scripting

38. The DLP project team is about to classify your organization's data. Whats is the primary purpose of classifying data?

It identifies regulatory compliance requirements.
It prioritizes IT budget expenditures.
It establishes the value of data to the organization.
It quantifies the potential cost of a data breach.

39. You are responsible for managing security of your organization's public cloud infrastructure. You need to implement security to protect the data and applications running in a variety of IaaS and PaaS services, including a new Kubernetes cluster. What type of solution is best suited to this requirement?

Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM)
Cloud Workload Protection Platforms (CWPP)
Cloud Access Security Brokers (CASBs)
Intrusion Detection and Prevention System (IDPS)

40. You choose a cybersecurity framework for your financial organization that implements an effective and auditable set of governance and management processes for IT. Which framework are you choosing?

C2M2
ISO/IEC 27001
NIST SP 800-37
COBIT

41. NIST SP 800-53 is one of two important control frameworks used in cybersecurity. What is the other one?

ISO 27002
ISO 27001
NIST SP 800-54
NIST SP 751-51

42. Your incident response team is unable to contain an incident because they lack authority to take action without management approval. Which critical step in the preparation phase did your team skip?

From an incident response committee to oversee any incidents that may occur.
Bring management in as leadership on the incident response team.
Get preauthorized to take unilateral action and make or direct emergency changes.
Assign a head of the emergency response team who has the correct authority

43. How often is the ISF Standard of Good Practice updated?

biannually
bimonthly
annual
monthly

44. You are working in the security operations center analyzing traffic on your network. You detect what you believe to be a port scan. What does this mean?

This is normal operation for your business.
This could be a precursor to an attack.
This could be a specific program being run by your accounting department.
This is an in-progress attack and should be reported immediately

45. The ASD Top Four are application whitelisting, patching of applications, patching of operating systems, and limiting administrative privileges. What percent of breaches do these account for?

40 percent
60 percent
85 percent
100 percent

46. FUD is expensive and often causes high drama over low risk. Which computer chip exploits were reported by CNN as needing to be completely replaced, but were later fixed with firmware updates?

fire and ice exploits
Intel and STMicro CPU exploits
meltdown and spectre exploits
super microboard and Apple iPhone exploits

47. To prevent an incident from overwhelming resources, _ is necessary.

disconnection from the network
early containment
continuation of monitoring for other incidents
eradication of the issues

48. Where would you record risks that have been identified and their details, such as their ID and name, classification of information, and the risk owner?

in the risk assessment documentation
in the business impact ledger
in the risk register
in the Orange Book

49. The most notorious military-grade advanced persistent threat was deployed in 2010, and targeted centrifuges in Iran. What was this APT call?

duqu
agent BTZ
stuxnet
flame

50. The regulatory requirements for notifications of data breaches, particularly the European General Data Protection Regulations, have had what sort of effect on business?

an increased consumer liability in the event of a data breach
a decreased consumer liability in the event of a data breach
an increased business liability in the event of a data breach
a decreased business liability in the event of a data breach

51. Which option describes a core principle of DevSecOps?

Testing and release should be 100% automated
Role separation is the key to software security
Final responsibility for security rests with the architect of the application
Everyone in the process is reponsible for security

52. Which information security principle states that organizations should defend systems against any particular attack using several independent methods?

separation of duties
privileged account management (PAM)
least privilege
defense-in-depth

53. Which software development lifecycle approach is most compatible with DevSecOps?

Model-Driven Development
Waterfall
Agile
Model-Driven Architecture

54. Which option is a mechanism to ensure non-repudiation?

MD5
Caesar cipher
symmetric-key encryption
asymmetric-key encryption

55. Executives in your organization exchange emails with external business partners when negotiating valuable business contracts. To ensure that these communications are legally defensible, the security team has recommended that a digital signature be added to these message.

What are the primary goals of the digital signature in this scenario? (Choose the best answer.)
integrity and non-repudiation
privacy and non-repudiation
privacy and confidentiality
integrity and privacy

56. You have just conducted a port scan of a network. There is no well-known port active. How do you find a webserver running on a host, which uses a random port number?

Give up on the current target network and move on to the next one.
Switch to another network scanning tool. Resort to more resource-intensive probing, like launching random attacks to all open ports.
Turn on additional options in your network scanning tool to further investigate the details (type and version) of applications running on the rest of the active ports.
Turn on the stealth mode in your network scanning tool. Check whether you missed any other active ports associated with web servers.

57. Your organization service customer orders with a custom ordering system developed in-hose. You are responsible for recommending a cloud model to meet the following requirements:

Control of security required for regulatory compliance
Legacy application and database support
Scalability to meet seasonal increases in demand

Which cloud model is the best option for these requirements?

public cloud
hybrid cloud
government cloud
private cloud

58. When does static application security testing require access to source code?

only when assessing regulatory compliance
only if following the Agile model
always
never

59. What is the difference between DevOps and DevSecOps?

DevSecOps places security controls in the CI/CD process of DevOps.
DevSecOps requires the inclusion of cybersecurity engineers in the CI/CD process of DevOps.
DevSecOps slows down the CI/CD process of DevOps.
DevSecOps lets cybersecurity engineers dictate the CI/CD process of DevOps.

60. Which compliance framework governs requirements for the U.S. healthcare industry?

FedRAMP
GDPR
PCI-DSS
HIPAA

61. In 2014, 4,278 IP addresses of zombie computers were used to flood a business with over one million packets per minute for about one hour. What is this type of attack called?

a salami attack
a botnet attack
a DoS (Denial of Service) attack
a DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service) attack

62. You are implementing a cybersecurity program in your organization and want to use the "de facto standard" cybersecurity framework. Which option would you choose?

the ISC2 Cypersecurity Framework
the NIST Cypersecurity Framework
the ISACA Cypersecurity Framework
the COBIT Cypersecurity Framework

63. According to NIST, what is the first action required to take advantage of the cybersecurity framework?

Identify the key business outcomes.
Understand the threats and vulnerabilities.
Conduct a risk assessment.
Analyze and prioritize gaps to create the action plan.

64. What are the essential characteristics of the reference monitor?

It is versatile, accurate, and operates at a very high speed.
It is tamper-proof, can always be invoked, and must be small enough to test.
It is restricted, confidential, and top secret

65. Which main reference coupled with the Cloud Security Alliance Guidance comprise the Security Guidance for Critical Areas of Focus in Cloud Computing?

ISO 27001
ISO 27017
Cloud Controls Matrix
Cloud Security Guidelines

66. Which organization has published the most comprehensive set of controls in its security guideline for the Internet of Things?

IoT ISACA
IoT Security Foundation
OWASP
GSMA

67. Which security control scheme do vendors often submit their products to for evaluation, to provide an independent view of product assurance?

Common Criteria
risk management certification board
OWASP security evaluation
ISO 27000

68. There are four possible treatments once an assessment has identified a risk. Which risk treatment implements controls to reduce risk?

risk acceptance
risk avoidance
risk mitigation
risk transfer

69. You have implemented controls to mitigate the threats, vulnerabilities, and impact to your business. Which type of risk is left over?

residual risk
inherent risk
applied risk
leftover risk

70. Which organization, established by NIST in 1990, runs workshops to foster coordination in incident prevention, stimulate rapid reaction to incidents, and allow experts to share information?

Forum of Incident Response and Security Teams
Crest UK Response Teams
Community of Computer Incident Response Teams
NIST Special Publication 800-61 Response Teams

71. NIST issued a revision to SP 800-37 in December 2018. It provides a disciplined, structured, and flexible process for managing security and privacy risk. Which type of document is SP 800-37??

a risk management framework
a guide to risk assessments
a guideline for vulnerability testing
a step-by-step guide for performing business impact analyses

72. You have just identified and mitigated an active malware attack on a user's computer, in which command and control was established. What is the next step in the process?

Reporting
Recovery
Eradiction / Remediation
Lessons Learned

73. Which programming language is most susceptible to buffer overflow attacks?

C
Java
Ruby
Python

74. Which list correctly describes risk management techniques?

risk acceptance, risk mitigation, risk containment, and risk qualification
risk avoidance, risk transference, risk mitigation, and risk acceptance
risk avoidance, risk transference, risk containment, and risk quantification
risk avoidance, risk mitigation, risk containment, and risk acceptance

75. To implement encryption in transit, such as with the HTTPS protocol for secure web browsing, which type(s) of encryption is/are used?

asymmetric
neither symmetric or asymmetric
both symmetric and asymmetric
symmetric

76. Which type of program uses Windows Hooks to capture keystrokes typed by the user, hides in the process list, and can compromise their system as well as their online access codes and password?

trojan
typethief
keylogger
keystroke collector

77. How does ransomware affect a victim's files?

by destroying them
by stealing them
by encrypting them
by selling them

78. Your computer has been infected, and is sending out traffic to a targeted system upon receiving a command from a botmaster. What condition is your computer currently in?

It has become a money mule.
It has become a zombie.
It has become a bastion host.
It has become a botnet.

79. What is the full form of LDAP?

Light Weight Directory Access Provider
Light Weight Directory Access Protocol
Light Weight Directory Access Program
Light Weight Directory Access Protection

80. What is the full form of CIA under information security?

Confidentiality Integrity Availability
Criminal Investigation Agency
Cost Information Agency
Credit Integrity Assessment

81. What is called periodic assessment of security vulnerability in computer system?

Threat
Attack
Hacking
Security audit

82. What is called a single point of access for several networking services? Phishing

Web service
Directory service
Worms

83. Script files sent mostly through email attachment to attack host computer are called ______.

Worms
Phishing attacks
Trojans
Computer Viruses

84. Attacking the victims through fake URL resembling that of a valid financial Institution is called____

Worms
Phishing attack
Trojans
Computer Viruses

85. Getting the user ID and password from a victim through a dubious program is called _____attack.

Worms
Phishing attack
Trojan
Computer Viruses

86. A single point of access for several networking services is called _____.

Directory Service
web server
email server
none of them

87. Directory service permits security administrators to ______.

concentrate on security of directory service instead of individual machines
create new vulnerabilities
damage the security of computers
create new virus

88. SDLC in software development stands for _____.

Software Development Life Circus
Software Development Life Cycle
Software Drafting Life Cycle
Software Development Lead Cycle

89. ______of access rights in source code development means verification of role before permitting access to source code.

verification
maintaining historical records
error handling
log of changes

90. _____in source code development means verification of role before permitting access to source code.

verification
maintaining historical records
error handling
log of changes

91. Which of the following is true of macro viruses?

They depend on the operating system to propagate
They are larger than traditional viruses
They depend on applications to propagate
They are written in low-level language to avoid detection

92. Which of the following can prevent virus infections?

implementing a firewall
implementing an intrusion detection system
Patching programs and the operating system
All of these

93. Secure Socket layer is a predecessor of which cryptographic protocol?

IPSec
Transport Layer security
SSL 3.0
HTTPS

94. An SQL injection is often used to attack what?

Small scale machines such as diebold ATMs
Large scale sequel databases such as those containing credit card information. c) Servers running SQL databases similar to Hadoop or Hive.
Servers built on NoSQL

95. What is internet protocol security?

Methods to secure internet protocol (IP) communication.
Ways to disconnect your router in an emergency
Methods to secure to disconnected computer.
Methods to secure your documents from physical breaches

96. Certification of Digital signature by an independent authority is need because

it is safe
it gives confidence to a business
the authority checks and assures customers that the public key indeed belongs to the business which claims its ownership
private key claimed by a sender may not be actually his

97. Most encryption for data stored on a laptop uses ____ cryptography.

True
Remote wipe
Private key
Symmetric

98. What act grants an authenticated party permission to perform an action or access a resource?

Zero Trust Security
Single Sign-On
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
authorization

99. According to GDPR, a data _ is the person about whom data is being collected.

subject
processor
object
controller

100. Which is not a principle of zero trust security?

use least privilege access
verify explicitly
trust but verify
assume breach

101. Which attack exploits input validation vulnerabilities?

cross-site scripting (XSS)
DNS poisoning
ARP spoofing
pharming attacks

102. You are a security analyst, and you receive a text message alerting you of a possible attack. Which security control is the least likely to produce this type of alert?

SIEM
packet sniffer
IDS
IPS

103. What are the primary goals of the digital signature in this scenario? (Choose the best answer.)

integrity and non-repudiation
privacy and non-repudiation
privacy and confidentiality
integrity and privacy

104. SQL injection inserts a code fragment that makes a database statement universally true, like _.

SELECT * FROM users WHERE username = " OR 1!=1--'
SELECT * FROM users WHERE username = " AND 1=1--'
SELECT * FROM users WHERE username = " AND 1!=1--'
SELECT * FROM users WHERE username = " OR 1=1--'

105. Which type of security assessment requires access to source code?

black box testing
static analysis
dynamic analysis
penetration testing

106. Which option is an open-source solution to scanning a network for active hosts and open ports?

Autopsy
Snort
Nmap
Wireshark

107. Which malware changes an operating system and conceals its tracks?

virus
rootkit
worm
Trojan horse

108. Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) use _ to create a secure connection between two networks.

a virtual local area network
a wide area network
encryption
a metropolitan area network

109. What is the process of challenging a user to prove their identity?

authorization
authentication
Single Sign-On
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

110. Which cyberattack aims to exhaust an application's resources, making the application unavailable to legitimate users?

SQL injection
dictionary attack
Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)
rainbow table attack

111. You are a recent cybersecurity hire, and your first assignment is to present on the possible threats to your organization. Which of the following best describes the task?

risk mitigation
threat assessment
risk management
enumeration

112. You are at a coffee shop and connect to a public wireless access point (WAP). What a type of cybersecurity attack are you most likely to experience?

back door
logic bomb
man-in-the-middle attack
virus

113. What is the purpose of a Denial of Service attack?

exploit a weakness in the TCP/IP stack
to execute a Trojan on a system
to overload a system so it is no longer operational
to shutdown services by turning them off

114. What is called the collective terms of malicious software, such as viruses, worms and trojans?

Spam
Phishing
Malware
Harm

115. When implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) strategy, what is the first step in the process?

Examine the flow of sensitive data in your organization to better understand usage patterns.
Conduct an inventory of all the data in your organization to establish classifications based on sensitivity.
Evaluate the features of available DLP products to determine which best meet your organizations's needs.
Conduct a risk assessment to determine the best data labeling strategy for your organization.

116. Botnets function with the use of ________.

Malware
Middleware
Application software
Firmware

117. Why would a hacker use a proxy server?

To create a stronger connection with the target.
To create a ghost server on the network.
To obtain a remote access connection.
To hide malicious activity on the network.

118. What type of symmetric key algorithm using a streaming cipher to encrypt information?

RC4
Blowfish
SHA
MD5

119. Which of the following is not a factor in securing the environment against an attack on security?

The education of the attacker
The system configuration
The network architecture
The business strategy of the company

120. . What type of attack uses a fraudulent server with a relay address?

NTLM
MITM
NetBIOS
SMB

121. What port is used to connect to the Active Directory in Windows 2000?

80
445
139
389

122. To hide information inside a picture, what technology is used?

Rootkits
Bitmapping
Steganography
Image Rendering

123. Which phase of hacking performs actual attack on a network or system?

Reconnaissance
Maintaining Access
Scanning
Gaining Access

124. Attempting to gain access to a network using an employee’s credentials is called the ______ mode of ethical hacking.

Local networking
Social engineering
Physical entry
Remote networking

125. Which Federal Code applies the consequences of hacking activities that disrupt subway transit systems?

Electronic Communications Interception of Oral Communications
18 U.S.§ 1029
Cyber Security Enhancement Act 2002
18 U.S.§ 1030

126. Which of the following is not a typical characteristic of an ethical hacker?

Excellent knowledge of Windows.
Understands the process of exploiting network vulnerabilities.
Patience, persistence and perseverance.
Has the highest level of security for the organization.

127. Which Nmap scan is does not completely open a TCP connection?

SYN stealth scan
TCP connect
XMAS tree scan
ACK scan

Cyber Security Test Questions Answers Linkedin

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