Medical Para-Medical Nursing Students Hematology MCQ answers
Medical Para-Medical Nursing Students Hematology MCQ answers
This MCQ covers mainly Anemia and Polycythemia.
A type of blood cancer known as polycythemia vera causes bone marrow to produce too many red blood cells and these excess cells thicken your blood, slowing its flow, which may cause serious problems, such as blood clots. Polycythemia vera is a rare, slowly developing, and one might have it undiagnosed
1.
Erythroblasts containing what are called sideroblasts ?
A.
Hemosiderin
B. Ferritin
C. Residual
RNA
D. All of
the above
2. Hemolysis
is most likely cause if reticulocyte production index is more than ?
A. 2.5
B. 3.5
C. 4.5
D. 5.5
3. Which of
the following anemias is most frequent?
A. Hypoproliferative
B.
Maturation Disorders
C.
Hemoglobinopathies
D. Hemolytic
4. A
hypoproliferative anemia can result from ?
A. Marrow
damage
B. Iron
deficiency
C.
Inadequate EPO stimulation
D. All of the above
5. Which of
the following is the iron regulatory hormone?
A.
Erythropoietin
B.
Transferrin
C. Hepcidin
D. All of
the above
6. Nuclear
maturation defects of RBCs result from all except?
A. Vitamin
B12 deficiency
B. Folic
acid deficiency
C. Iron deficiency
D.
Methotrexate therapy
7.
Cytoplasmic maturation defects of RBCs result from?
A. Severe
iron deficiency
B.
Abnormalities in heme synthesis
C.
Abnormalities in globin synthesis
D. Any of the above
8. According
to WHO, anemia is defined as as a hemoglobin level of ?
A. < 14
g/dL in men & < 13 g/dL in women
B. < 13 g/dL in men & < 12 g/dL
in women
C. < 12
g/dL in men & < 11 g/dL in women
D. < 11
g/dL in men & < 10 g/dL in women
9.
Hematopoietic stem cell produce which of the following ?
A. Red cells
B. All
classes of granulocytes
C. Cells of
the immune system
D. All of the above
10. In the
absence of erythropoietin (EPO), committed erythroid progenitor cells undergo ?
A. Stunted
growth
B. Halting
of growth
C. Programmed cell death (apoptosis)
D. Change to
other series of hematopoietic cell
11. How many
mature red cells are produced from a pronormoblast ?
A. 1 to 16
B. 16 to 32
C. 32 to 48
D. 48 to 64
12.
Regulation of EPO production is linked to ?
A. O2
B. CO2
C. Red cell
mass
D.
Hemoglobin concentration
13. Which of
the following about mature red cells is false?
A. Diameter
is 8 μm
B. Anucleate
C. Discoid
in shape
D. None of the above
14. Surface
of each platelet has how many GpIIb / IIIa binding sites ?
A. ~ 10,000
B. ~ 25,000
C. ~ 50,000
D. ~ 100,000
15. Tissue
factor (TF) is present on ?
A.
Subendothelial cellular components of vessel wall
B.
Circulating microparticles from monocytes
C.
Circulating microparticles from platelets
D. All of the above
16. Which of
the following is a serine protease factor ?
A. III
B. VIIa
C. IX
D. X
17.
Essential cofactor for conversion of prothrombin to thrombin is ?
A. Va
B. VIIa
C. IX
D. X
18. Which of
the following in endothelial cells has antithrombotic effect ?
A.
Prostacyclin
B. Nitric
oxide
C.
EctoADPase/CD39
D. All of the above
19.
Anticoagulant factor produced by endothelial cells is?
A. Heparan
proteoglycans
B.
Antithrombin
C.
Thrombomodulin
D. All of the above
20. Normal
level of Plasma EPO is?
A. 10 to 25 U/L
B. 25 to 50
U/L
C. 50 to 75
U/L
D. 75 to 100
U/L
21. Target
red cells best relate to?
A. Uremia
B. Myelofibrosis
C.
Thalassemia
D. Acute
hemolysis
22. Target
cells are seen in ?
A. Liver
disease
B.
Thalassemia
C.
Hemoglobin C disease
D. All of the above
23. Thermal
injury may produce which of the following?
A. Target
cells
B. Burr
cells
C.
Howell-Jolly bodies
D. Red cell fragmentation
24. Burr
cells are also called?
A. Echinocytes
B.
Acanthocytes
C.
Elliptocytes
D.
Spherocytes
25.
Echinocytes are found in patients with?
A. Severe
uremia
B.
Glycolytic red cell enzyme defects
C.
Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
D. All of the above
26.
Acanthocytes are present in which of the following conditions ?
A. Severe
liver disease
B.
Abetalipoproteinemia
C. Patients
with McLeod blood group
D. All of the above
27. Plasma
EPO levels increase when hemoglobin falls below?
A. 10 to 12 g/dL
B. 8 to 10
g/dL
C. 6 to 8
g/dL
D. 4 to 6
g/dL
28. In
circulation, EPO has a half-clearance time of ?
A. 1 to 3
hours
B. 3 to 6
hours
C. 6 to 9 hours
D. 9 to 12
hours
29. The mean
hematocrit value for adult males is?
A. 42 %
B. 45 %
C. 47 %
D. 49 %
30. Anemia
is most often recognized by ?
A. Attendant
symptoms
B. Attendant
signs
C. Abnormal screening laboratory tests
D. All of
the above
31.
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) assesses which of the following
factors?
A. Factor
VIII
B. Factor IX
C. Factor X
D. All of the above
32. Structure
of Fibrinogen is?
A.
Uninodular
B. Binodular
C. Trinodular
D.
Quadrinodular
33. Cross-linking
of the D domains on adjacent fibrinogen molecules is done by ?
A. FX
B. FXI
C. FXII
D. FXIIIa
34. Which of
the following about D-Dimers is false?
A. Product
of complete lysis of fibrin
B. Released
when plasmin acts on fibrin
C.
Relatively specific test of fibrin degradation
D. Relatively specific test of fibrinogen
degradation
35. Normal
level of D-Dimer in blood is ?
A. < 500
pg/mL
B. < 500 ng/mL
C. < 500
μg/mL
D. < 500
mg/mL
36. Plasma
level of D-Dimer is ?
A. 0.22 -
0.74 mg/mL
B. 0.22 - 0.74 μg/mL
C. 0.22 -
0.74 ng/mL
D. 0.22 -
0.74 pg/mL
37. O2–hemoglobin
dissociation curve relates to which of the following ?
A. Claude
effect
B. Bohr effect
C. Charles
effect
38. What
percentage of all circulating RBCs is replaced daily?
A. 0.2 to
0.4 %
B. 0.4 to
0.6 %
C. 0.6 to
0.8 %
D. 0.8 to 1%
39. Term
“erythron” best relates to ?
A. Erythroid/megakaryocyte progenitor
B. Red cell
destruction
C. Organ responsible for red cell
production
D. Red blood
cell mass
40.
Erythropoietin is a?
A. Peptide
hormone
B. Glycoprotein hormone
C. Steroid
hormone
D. None of
the above
41. Signs of
vascular instability appear with acute blood loss of ?
A. 5 to 10 %
of total blood volume
B. 10 to 15 % of total blood volume
C. 15 to 20
% of total blood volume
D. 20 to 25%
of total blood volume
42. Which of
the following produced by endothelial cells acts as an anticoagulant ?
A.
Plasminogen activator inhibitor
B. Thrombomodulin
C.
Prostacyclin
D. Nitric
oxide
43. Bruising
or mucosal bleeding may be the presenting complaint in ?
A. Liver
disease
B. Severe
renal impairment,
C.
Hypothyroidism
D. All of the above
44. All
coagulation factors are synthesized in?
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Lungs
D. None of
the above
45. Which of
the following coagulation factors is dependent on vitamin K for
posttranslational modification ?
A. Factor II
B. Factor
VII
C. Factor IX
D. All of the above
46. Which of
the following proteins is dependent on vitamin K for posttranslational
modification ?
A. Protein C
B. Protein S
C. Protein Z
D. All of the above
47. Normal
blood platelet count is ?
A. 50,000 to
100,000/μL
B. 100,000
to 250,000/μL
C. 150,000 to 450,000/μL
D. 250,000
to 550,000/μL
48.
Epistaxis is the most common symptom in?
A.
Hemophilia A
B.
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
C. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
D. Cushing’s
syndrome
49.
Menorrhagia is a common symptom in women with?
A. VWD
B. Factor XI
deficiency
C.
Symptomatic carriers of hemophilia A
D. All of the above
50. Which of
the following is called a “life-threatening site of bleeding”?
A. Bleeding
into oropharynx
B. Bleeding
into central nervous system
C. Bleeding
into retroperitoneum
D. All of the above
51 Which of
the following about clopidogrel is false?
A.
Thienopyridine
B. Inhibits
ADP-mediated platelet aggregation
C. Can
precipitate or exacerbate bleeding symptoms
D. None of the above
52. Herb
with potential anti-platelet activity is?
A. Ginger
B. Turmeric
C. Garlic
D. All of the above
53. Thrombocytopenia
results from?
A. Decreased
production of platelets
B. Increased
destruction of platelets
C.
Sequestration of platelets
D. (PT ratio)
54.
Endothelial cells activate fibrinolytic mechanisms through the production of?
A. Tissue
plasminogen activator 1
B. Urokinase
C.
Plasminogen activator inhibitor
D. All of the above
55. Which of
the following best relates to heparin?
A. Antithrombin III
B. Protein C
C. Protein S
D. All of
the above
56. Which of
the following becomes an anticoagulant when it is activated by thrombin ?
A.
Antithrombin III
B. Protein C
C. Protein S
D. Tissue
factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI)
57. Which of
the following about thrombomodulin is false?
A.
Transmembrane proteoglycan binding site for thrombin on the endothelial cell surface
B.
Thrombin-induced activation of protein C occurs physiologically on
thrombomodulin
C.
Anticoagulant factor from endothelial cell
D. None of the above
58.
Activated protein C acts as an anticoagulant by cleaving and inactivating the activated factor?
A. II
B. V
C. VI
D. X
59.
Hypovolemic shock results if volume of blood lost is ?
A. > 25 %
B. > 30 %
C. > 35 %
D. > 40 %
60.
Intravascular hemolysis with release of free hemoglobin may be associated with
?
A. Acute back pain
B. Acute
pain in lower limbs
C. Acute
pain in upper limbs
D. Acute
headache
61. Which of
the following may be associated with autoimmune hemolysis?
A. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
B. Infection
C.
Rheumatoid arthritis
D. All of
the above
62. If
palmar creases are lighter in color than surrounding skin, hemoglobin level is
usually?
A. < 10
g/dL
B. < 8 g/dL
C. < 6
g/dL
D. < 4 g/dL
63. Reliable
estimate of red cell production is provided by?
A. EPO
levels
B. Reticulocyte count
C. RDW
D.
Polychromasia
64. “Shift”
cells refer to?
A. Older
RBCs
B. Prematurely released reticulocytes
C.
Normoblasts
D. Any of
the above
65. The
normal serum iron range is?
A. 10 to 50
μg / dL
B. 50 to 150 μg / dL
C. 150 to
250 μg / dL
D. 250 to
450 μg / dL
66. The
normal serum TIBC range is ?
A. 100 to
150 μg / dL
B. 150 to
300 μg / dL
C. 300 to 360 μg / dL
D. 350 to
450 μg / dL
67. Percent
transferrin saturation is calculated by ?
A. (TIBC x
100) ÷ Serum iron
B. (Serum
iron + TIBC) ÷ 100
C. (Serum iron x 100) ÷ TIBC
D. (Serum
iron ÷ TIBC) x 100
68. Adult
males have average serum ferritin levels of about?
A. 10 μg / L
B. 50 μg / L
C. 100 μg / L
D. 200 μg /
L
69. Increased
red cell mass is present when hematocrit in men is?
A. > 45 %
B. > 50 %
C. > 55 %
D. > 60 %
70.
Gaisbock’s syndrome relates to ?
A. Spurious polycythemia
B. High
altitude polycythemia
C. Ectopic
EPO production
D. Familial
polycythemia
71. EPO-producing
neoplasms include?
A. Hepatoma
B. Uterine
leiomyoma
C.
Cerebellar hemangiomas
D. All of the above
72. In the
human hemostatic system, procoagulant forces include?
A. Platelet
adhesion
B. Platelet
aggregation
C. Fibrin
clot formation
D. All of the above
73. The
major components of the hemostatic system are ?
A. Platelets,
monocytes and red cells
B. Plasma
proteins
C. Vessel
wall
D. All of the above
74. Which of
the following relates to protein S ?
A. Cofactor
B.
Glycoprotein
C. Vitamin K
dependent posttranslational modification
D. All of the above
75. Which of
the following inhibits TF / FVIIa / FXa complex?
A. Activated
protein C
B. Protein S
C. Tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI)
D. All of
the above
76. Tissue
factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI) be released by ?
A. Heparin
B.
Streptokinase
C. Urokinase
D. All of
the above
77.
Plasminogen activators (tPA & uPA) cleave which bond of plasminogen to
generate the active enzyme plasmin?
A. Arg460 -
Val461
B. Arg560 - Val561
C. Arg660 -
Val661
D. Arg760 -
Val761
78. “Fibrin
specific” activity of plasmin is due to its?
A.
Arginine-binding sites
B. Lysine-binding sites
C.
Valine-binding sites
D.
Leucine-binding sites
79. Physiologic
regulation of fibrinolysis is done by ?
A.
Plasminogen activator inhibitors (PAI-1 & PAI-2)
B.
Thrombin-activatable fibrinolysis inhibitor (TAFI)
C.
2-antiplasmin
D. All of the above
80. Adult
females have average serum ferritin levels of about?
A. 10 μg / L
B. 30 μg / L
C. 60 μg / L
D. 90 μg / L
81. Ferritin
is also an ?
A. Enzyme
B. Cytokine
C. Chemokine
D. Acute-phase reactant
82. Erythroid
cells take about how many days to mature?
A. 2.5
B. 3.5
C. 4.5
D. 5.5
83. Absolute
reticulocyte count is calculated by?
A. Reticulocyte count x (Hemoglobin ÷
expected hemoglobin)
B.
Reticulocyte count x (Hemoglobin + Hematocrit)
C.
Reticulocyte count x (Hemoglobin x Hematocrit)
D.
Reticulocyte count / (Hemoglobin + Hematocrit)
85. Which of
the following about macrocytes is false?
A. Red cells
are larger than a small lymphocyte
B. Well
hemoglobinized red cells
C. Often
oval shaped
D. None of the above
86.
Howell-Jolly bodies best relate to which of the following?
A. Uremia
B. Nuclear remnants
C. Foreign
bodies in the circulation
D. All of
the above
87. Which of
the following reflects iron supply?
A. Serum
iron
B. Total
iron-binding capacity (TIBC)
C. Serum
ferritin
D. All of the above
88. Which of
the following formula estimates MCV?
A. (Hematocrit x 10) / (red cell count x
106)
B.
(Hemoglobin x 10) / (red cell count x 106)
C.
(Hemoglobin x 10) / hematocrit
D.
(Hematocrit x 10) / hemoglobin
89.
Anisocytosis is related to which feature of RBC ?
A. Size
B. Shape
C. Number
D. Colour
90.
Poikilocytosis is related to which feature of RBC?
A. Size
B. Shape
C. Number
D. Colour
91. RDW
correlates with?
A. Anisocytosis
B.
Poikilocytosis
C.
Polychromasia
D. All of
the above
92. Increased
red cell mass is present when hematocrit in men is?
A. > 45 %
B. > 50 %
C. > 55 %
D. > 60 %
93.
Gaisbock’s syndrome relates to ?
A. Spurious polycythemia
B. High
altitude polycythemia
C. Ectopic
EPO production
D. Familial
polycythemia
94.
EPO-producing neoplasms include?
A. Hepatoma
B. Uterine
leiomyoma
C.
Cerebellar hemangiomas
D. All of the above
95. In the
human hemostatic system, procoagulant forces include?
A. Platelet
adhesion
B. Platelet
aggregation
C. Fibrin
clot formation
D. All of the above
96 The major
components of the hemostatic system are?
A.
Platelets, monocytes, and red cells
B. Plasma
proteins
C. Vessel
wall
D. All of the above
97. Upon
staining with supravital dye, reticulocytes are identified by what colour of
punctate spots?
A. Red
B. Blue
C. Green
D. Yellow
98. Which of
the following is false about the spleen?
A. Decreases
in size with age
B. Lies
entirely within rib cage
C. Maximum
cephalocaudad diameter is 13 cm by USG
D. Maximum width of 14 cm by radionuclide
scan
99. Katayama
fever is characterized by all except?
A. Fever
B.
Generalized lymphadenopathy
C. Lymphocytosis
D.
Hepatosplenomegaly
100.
Middleton maneuver is used for splenic?
A.
Inspection
B. Palpation
C.
Percussion
D.
Auscultation
101. Which
of the following is false in spleen examination?
A.
Auscultation may reveal venous hum or friction rub
B. Bimanual
palpation in right lateral decubitus position adds nothing to supine
examination
C.
Reproducibility among examiners is better for palpation than percussion
D. None of the above